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June 03, 2005

Comments

m.visaya

if c[i] and d[i] are non-quarks and X is the set of quarks, further if X[i] in X, (c[i]-d[i]) <> 0, would a particle involving (c[i]-d[i])X[i] have mass=0?

#10 LaBs

David

yes

m. visaya

thanks, you must be a lepton expert.

i think the electron and muon neutrino satisfy this condition.

#10 LaBs

mick

hey, you haven't posted in a long time....

being in america you probably didn't see the rugby on the weekend. i didn't get to see it either but at least i can brag about the win :-).

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